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JEE Main Mock Test – Full Length
|Number of questions||90|
|Type of questions||Multiple Choice Question with single answer correct|
|Time limit (duration of exam)||180 minutes (3 hours)|
|Mock Test for||JEE Main (Joint Entrance Examination – Mains)|
|Marks for correct answer||+4|
Subject wise division of questions
Instructions for the Exam – JEE Main Mock Test (full length)
Total duration of examination is 180 minutes (3 hours).
The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top left corner of the test will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination
The Question Palette displayed on the top of the test will show the status of each question using one of the following symbols:
– Marked for review
The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again. If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question will not be considered in the evaluation.
Navigating to a Question
To answer a question, do the following:
- Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question directly.
- Select an answer for a multiple choice type question.
- Click on Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next question.
- Click on Mark for Review and Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
Answering a Question
Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:
- To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options
- To deselect your chosen answer, click on the “Review Question” button
- To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option
- To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Next button. If an answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will not be considered in the evaluation.
You can shuffle between different questions any number of times.
Paper specific instructions:
- There are a total of 90 questions carrying 360 marks. The question paper consists of questions of multiple choice type questions. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices for the answer with only one correct choice.
- There are three sections: Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
- Questions not attempted will result in zero mark.
- Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
- Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.
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Question 1 of 90
An unknown alcohol is treated with the “Lucas reagent” to determine whether the alcohol is primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts fastest and by what mechanism:
Question 2 of 90
The first ionization potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be:
Question 3 of 90
Stability of the species Li2, Li2- and Li2+ increases in the order of
Question 4 of 90
The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750 mL of 0.5 (M) HCl with 250 mL of 2(M)HCl will be
Question 5 of 90
Which of the following is the correct statement?
Question 6 of 90
Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with atomic numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest E0M3+/M3- value?
Question 7 of 90
A solution of (–) –1 – chloro –1 – phenylethane is toluene racemises slowly in the presence of a small amount of SbCl5, due to the formation of
Question 8 of 90
The coagulating power of electrolytes having ions Na+, Al3+ and Ba2+ for arsenic sulphide sol increases in the order
Question 9 of 90
How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2?
Question 10 of 90
Which one of the following molecules is expected to exhibit diamagnetic behaviour?
Question 11 of 90
Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of the property stated against it ?
Question 12 of 90
Experimentally it was found that a metal oxide has formula M0.98O. Metal M, is present as M2+ and M3+ in its oxide. Fraction of the metal which exists as M3+ would be:
Question 13 of 90
A compound with molecular mass 180 is acylated with CH3COCl to get a compound with molecular mass 390. The number of amino groups present per molecule of the former compound is:
Question 14 of 90
Based on the data given above, strongest oxidising agent will be:
Question 15 of 90
Arrange the following compounds in order of decreasing acidity:
Question 16 of 90
The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature changes from 300K to 310K. Activation energy of such a reaction will be:
(R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 and log 2 = 0.301)
Question 17 of 90
Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis involves
Question 18 of 90
Which of the following complex species is not expected to exhibit optical isomerism?
Question 19 of 90
A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a constant temperature of 37.0°C. As it does so, it absorbs 208J of heat. The values of q and w for the process will be:
(R = 8.314 J/mol K) ( ln 7.5 = 2.01)
Question 20 of 90
A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion 0.72 g of water and 3.08 g of CO2. The empirical formula of the hydrocarbon is
Question 21 of 90
The order of stability of the following carbocations
Question 22 of 90
Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing first ionization enthalpy for Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar?
Question 23 of 90
For gaseous state, if most probable speed is denoted by C*, average speed by C and mean square speed by C, then for a large number of molecules the ratios of these speeds are:
Question 24 of 90
The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was:
Question 25 of 90
Consider the following reaction
The values of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively:
Question 26 of 90
Which of the following exists as covalent crystals in the solid state?
Question 27 of 90
Compound (A), C8H9Br, gives a white precipitate when warmed with alcoholic AgNO3. Oxidation of (A) gives a acid (B), C8H6O4. (B) easily forms anhydride on heating. Identify the compound (A).
Question 28 of 90
Energy of an electron is given by E= -2.178 x 10-18J. Wavelength of light required to excite an electron in an hydrogen atom from level n = 1 to n = 2 will be.
Question 29 of 90
An organic compound A upon reacting with NH3 gives B. On heating B gives C. C in presence of KOH reacts with Br2 to give CH3CH2NH2. A is
Question 30 of 90
In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, both the species are not likely to exist?
Question 31 of 90
In an LCR circuit as shown below both switches are open initially. Now switch S1 is closed, S2 kept open. (q is charge on the capacitor and τ = RC is capacitive time constant). Which of the following statement is correct?
Question 32 of 90
A diode detector is used to detect an amplitude modulated wave of 60% modulation by using a condenser of capacity 250 pico farad in parallel with a load resistance 100 kilo ohm. Find the maximum modulated frequency which could be detected by it.
Question 33 of 90
The supply voltage to a room is 120 V. The resistance of the lead wires is 6 Ω. A 60 W bulb is already switched on. What is the decrease of voltage across the bulb, when a 240 W heater is switched on in parallel to the bulb?
Question 34 of 90
A uniform cylinder of length L and mass M having cross-sectional area A is suspended, with its length vertical, from a fixed point by a massless spring, such that it is half submerged in a liquid of density σ at equilibrium position. The extension X0 of the spring when it is in equilibrium is:
Question 35 of 90
Two charges, each equal to q, are kept at x=a on the x-axis. A particle of mass m and charge q0=q/2 is placed at the origin. If charge q0 is given a small displacement (y a) along the y-axis, the net force acting on the particle is proportional to:
Question 36 of 90
A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I0 is passed through a polaroid A and then through another polaroid B which is oriented so that its principal plane makes an angle of 45° relative to that of A. The intensity of the emergent light is:
Question 37 of 90
The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The wavelength λ of the light falling on the cathode is gradually changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as follows:
Question 38 of 90
Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are separated by a small distance ‘d’ as shown. The fringes obtained on the screen will be:
Question 39 of 90
A metallic rod of length ‘l’ is tied to a string of length 2l and made to rotate with angular speed ω on a horizontal table with one end of the string fixed. If there is a vertical magnetic field ‘B’ in the region, the e.m.f. induced across the ends of the rod is:
Question 40 of 90
In a hydrogen like atom electron makes transition from an energy level with quantum number n to another with quantum number (n – 1). If n >> 1, the frequency of radiation emitted is proportional to
Question 41 of 90
Assume that a drop of liquid evaporates by decrease in its surface energy, so that its temperature remains unchanged. What should be the minimum radius of the drop for this to be possible? The surface tension is T, density of liquid is ρ and L is its latent heat of vaporization.
Question 42 of 90
The graph between angle of deviation (δ) and angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is represented by:
Question 43 of 90
Let [ε0] denote the dimensional formula of the permittivity of vacuum. If M = mass, L = length, T = time and A = electric current, then:
Question 44 of 90
The above p-v diagram represents the thermodynamic cycle of an engine, operating with an ideal monoatomic gas. The amount of heat extracted from the source in a single cycle is
Question 45 of 90
A sonometer wire of length 1.5 m is made of steel. The tension in it produces an elastic strain of 1 %. What is the fundamental frequency of steel if density and elasticity of steel are 7.7 × 103 kg/m3 and 2.2 × 1011N/m2 respectively?
Question 46 of 90
This question has statement I and statement II. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement- I: Higher the range, greater is the resistance of ammeter.
Statement- II: To increase the range of ammeter, additional shunt needs to be used across it.
Question 47 of 90
What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R?
Question 48 of 90
A projectile is given an initial velocity of (i + 2j) m/s, where i is along the ground and j is along the vertical. If g = 10 m/s2, the equation of its trajectory is:
Question 49 of 90
Two capacitors C1 and C2 are charged to 120 V and 200 V respectively. It is found that by connecting them together the potential on each one can be made zero. Then :
Question 50 of 90
A hoop of radius r and mass m rotating with an angular velocity ω0 is placed on a rough horizontal surface. The initial velocity of the centre of the hoop is zero. What will be the velocity of the centre of the hoop when it ceases to slip?
Question 51 of 90
An ideal gas enclosed in a vertical cylindrical container supports a freely moving piston of mass M. The piston and cylinder have equal cross sectional area A. When the piston is in equilibrium, the volume of the gas is V0 and its pressure is P0. The piston is slightly displaced from the equilibrium position and released. Assuming that the system is completely isolated from its surrounding, the piston executes a simple harmonic motion with frequency:
Question 52 of 90
A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a long rod AB of length L as shown in the figure. The electric potential at the point O lying at a distance L from the end A is:
Question 53 of 90
A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel to a much bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm. The centre of the small loop is on the axis of the bigger loop. The distance between their centres is 15 cm. If a current of 2.0 A flows through the smaller loop, then the flux linked with bigger loop is
Question 54 of 90
If a piece of metal is heated to temperature θ and then allowed to cool in a room which is at temperature θ0 the graph between the temperature T of the metal and time t will be closest to :
Question 55 of 90
The I – V characteristic of an LED is
Question 56 of 90
This question has Statement I and Statement II. Of the four choices given after the Statements, choose the one that best describes the two Statements.
Statement – I : A point particle of mass m moving with speed v collides with stationary point particle of mass M. If the maximum energy loss possible is given as f (1/2mv2) then f=[m/(M+m)]
Statement – II : Maximum energy loss occurs when the particles get stuck together as a result of the collision.
Question 57 of 90
The amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases to 0.9 times its original magnitude is 5s. In another 10s it will decrease to α times its original magnitude, where α equals.
Question 58 of 90
Diameter of plano-convex lens is 6 cm and thickness at the centre is 3 mm. If speed of light in material of lens is 2 × 10
8 m/s, the focal length of the lens is :
Question 59 of 90
The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value of electric field strength is :
Question 60 of 90
Two short bar magnets of length 1 cm each have magnetic moments 1.20 Am2 and 1.00 Am2 respectively. They are placed on a horizontal table parallel to each other with their N poles pointing towards the South. They have a common magnetic equator and are separated by a distance of 20.0 cm. The value of the resultant horizontal magnetic induction at the mid – point O of the line joining their centres is close to (Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic induction is 3.6 × 10-5 Wb/m2)
Question 61 of 90
The circle passing through (1, −2) and touching the axis of x at (3, 0) also passes through the point
Question 62 of 90
ABCD is a trapezium such that AB and CD are parallel and BC⊥CD. If ∠ADB = θ, BC = p and CD = q, then AB is equal to
Question 63 of 90
Given : A circle, 2x2 + 2y2 = 5 and a parabola, y2 = 4√5x.
Statement −−− I : An equation of a common tangent to these curves is y = x + √5
Statement − II : If the line, y=mx + √5/m (m!=0) is either common tangent, then m satisfies m4 – 3m2 + 2 = 0
Question 64 of 90
A ray of light along x + √3y = √3 gets reflected upon reaching x-axis, the equation of the reflected rays is
Question 65 of 90
All the students of a class performed poorly in Mathematics. The teacher decided to give grace marks of 10 to each of the students. Which of the following statistical measures will not change even after the grace marks were given ?
Question 66 of 90
If x, y, z are in A.P. and tan−1x, tan−1y and tan−1z are also in A.P., then
Question 67 of 90
If ∫f (x) dx =Ψ(x) , then ∫x5f(x3) dx is equal to
Question 68 of 90
The equation of the circle passing through the foci of the ellipse x2/16 + y2/9 = 1 , and having centre at (0, 3) is
Question 69 of 90
The x-coordinate of the incentre of the triangle that has the coordinates of mid points of its sides as (0, 1) (1, 1) and (1, 0) is
Question 70 of 90
The intercepts on x-axis made by tangents to the curve, y= 0∫x |t| dt, x ∈ R, which are parallel to the line y = 2x, are equal to
Question 71 of 90
The sum of first 20 terms of the sequence 0.7, 0.77, 0.777, ….. , is
Question 72 of 90
Statement −−− I : (p ∧ ~ q) ∧ (~ p ∧ q) is a fallacy.
Statement −−− II : (p → q) ↔ (~ q → ~ p) is a tautology.
Question 73 of 90
The area (in square units) bounded by the curves y = √x, 2y – x + 3 = 0, x-axis, and lying in the first quadrant is
Question 74 of 90
The expression tan [A / (1 - cot A)] + [cot A / (1 - tan A)] can be written as
Question 75 of 90
The real number k for which the equation, 2x3 + 3x + k = 0 has two distinct real roots in [0, 1]
Question 76 of 90
Question 77 of 90
Let Tn be the number of all possible triangles formed by joining vertices of an n-sided regular polygon. If Tn+1 − Tn = 10, then the value of n is
Question 78 of 90
At present, a firm is manufacturing 2000 items. It is estimated that the rate of change of production P w.r.t. additional number of workers x is given by dP/dx = 100 – 12√x If the firm employs 25 more workers, then the new level of production of items is
Question 79 of 90
Question 80 of 90
is the adjoint of a 3 × 3 matrix A and |A| = 4, then a is equal to
Question 81 of 90
The number of values of k, for which the system of equations
(k + 1)x + 8y = 4k
kx + (k + 3)y = 3k − 1
has no solution, is
Question 82 of 90
If y = sec(tan−1x), then dy/dx at x = 1 is equal to
Question 83 of 90
If the lines
are coplanar, then k can have
Question 84 of 90
Let A and B be two sets containing 2 elements and 4 elements respectively. The number of subsets of A × B having 3 or more elements is
Question 85 of 90
If the vectors AB 3i + 4k and AC = 5i – 2j + 4k are the sides of a triangle ABC, then the length of the median through A is
Question 86 of 90
A multiple choice examination has 5 questions. Each question has three alternative answers of which exactly one is correct. The probability that a student will get 4 or more correct answers just by guessing is
Question 87 of 90
If z is a complex number of unit modulus and argument θ, then arg (1+z)/(1+z)
Question 88 of 90
If the equations x2 + 2x + 3 = 0 and ax2 + bx + c = 0, a, b, c ∈ R, have a common root, then a : b : c is
Question 89 of 90
Distance between two parallel planes 2x + y + 2z = 8 and 4x + 2y + 4z + 5 = 0 is
Question 90 of 90
The term independent of x in expansion of